| Leilani13 | Divorce based on abuse? |
    42,004 / 50,000 Official Participant
Joined: Sep 23, 2009
Location: Tucked away in my own little daydreams Posts: 109
Posted on:
Nov 5, 2009 - 17 00 |
I want one of my charcters to get divorced from her husband becuase he is abusing and cheating on her. They live in 1884, in London. How could this happen? Would she be allowed to get a divorce, or would the man have to trigger it? What if the police were involved? I have absolutely no knowedge on the subject, so please help. Forever grateful, Leilani |
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46,709 / 50,000
Nov 5, 2009 - 22 24
http://www.clas.ufl.edu/users/agunn/teaching/enl3251/vf/pres/hurvitz.htm
Possible, and the 1883 laws mean that she may not be left destitute.
39,999 / 50,000
Nov 9, 2009 - 22 19
We spent a whole class on this. :D
She could initiate a divorce if abuse could be proven (like police involvement). But she really would have to be able to prove serious recurring abuse otherwise she's screwed. Adultery could be used against women but not against men as a stand alone charge (that being based out of inheritance issues, you didn't want someone else's child inheriting your stuff and you can tell who the mother of the child is easily, the father is an honor system hence why women were treated much more harshly in that sense).
Also, depending on social rank she could simply seperate from the man, its like divorce but without the marriage actually being dissolved. This was common in lower wrungs of society since divorce cost money and if you didn't have much of social rep to worry about then it worked quite well.
As weird as this may seem she might have trouble getting custody of kids if they have children. Its an odd business and I unfortunately forget why the men would want to keep the kids around (I think its something to do with family honor but don't quote me on that) but its not like it is today where the mom is given the leg up with custody.
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